bpsc pyq prelims

BPSC PYQ Prelims

51 Consider the following statements regarding insolvency and bankruptcy:
(1) Bankruptcy refers to a financial state in which an individual or entity is unable to pay off their debts as they become due.
(2) Insolvency refers to a legal process, where the assets of the debtor are liquidated or reorganized for the benefit of creditors.
(3) Bankruptcy is a state whereas insolvency is the conclusion.
(4) The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) is the regulatory body responsible for overseeing insolvency and bankruptcy proceedings.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) Only 4
(c) Only 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3

51. Option (b) is correct.
Explanation: Bankruptcy: It’s a legal status, often declared by a court, indicating that an individual or entity is incapable of repaying debts. Bankruptcy involves a structured process, including potential debt repayment through asset sales or government-assisted restructuring.
Insolvency: It’s a financial situation where an entity’s debts exceed its assets, making it unable to meet financial obligations. Insolvency doesn’t always lead to bankruptcy but may involve various strategies, such as negotiations, debt restructuring, or asset sales, to address the financial challenges. Bankruptcy can be one possible outcome of insolvency when other remedies are not viable.

52 In which year was the Industrial Policy Resolution adopted?
(a) 1954
(b) 1952
(c) 1950
(d) 1956

52. Option (d) is correct.
Explanation:The Industrial Policy Resolution (IPR) was adopted in India on July 24, 1956. This policy marked a significant development in India’s economic planning and industrialization efforts, particularly in the post-independence era.

53 Consider the following statements about the Produc- tion-Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme:
(1) The scheme offers a production-linked incentive to boost domestic manufacturing and attract large investments in mobile phone manufacturing and specified electronic components.
(2) The scheme has two categories of applicants, namely, global companies and domestic companies.
(3) The scheme shall extend an average incentive of around 8% on net incremental sales (over base year) of goods manufactured in India and covered under the target segment, to eligible companies, for a period of six years.
(4) The target segment under PLI shall include (i) laptops, (ii) tablets, (iii) all-in-one PCs, (iv) servers and (v) Ultra-Small Form Factor (USFF).

Which of the above statements are incorrect?
(a) 2 and 4
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 4

53. Option (c) is correct.
Explanation: Statement 2 is incorrect: The PLI scheme has four categories of applicants – global companies, Indian companies, consortium of Indian companies, and consortium of global companies.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The PLI scheme offers varying incentives depending on the sector, and the average incentive is not a fixed 8%. It ranges from 1% to 20% for different sectors.

54 Consider the following statements regarding the SVAMITVA scheme:
(1) It is a Central Sector Scheme under the Ministry of Mines.
(2) This scheme seeks to create geopositioning infrastruc- ture like CORS network to benchmark the location and provides five centimetre level accuracy.
(3) CORS means Cross-Origin Resource Sharing.
(4) The scheme is a reformative step towards establishment of clear ownership of property in rural inhabited (Abadi) areas, by mapping of land parcels using drone technology.

Which of the above statements are incorrect?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2 and 4

54. Option (a) is correct.
Explanation: The scheme is under the Ministry of Panchayati Raj. CORS stands for Continuous Operating Reference System.

55 Which of the following is/are the consequence(s) of invoking Article 360, declaration of a financial emergency?
(1) The President may order the States to reduce the salaries and allowances of all or any class of employees serving in connection with the State affairs.
(2) Money Bills or other financial bills passed by the State Legislature are not required to be reserved for the consideration of the President.
(3) The President can issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of employ- ees serving in connection with the affairs of the Union, including the Judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts.
(4) Money Bills or other financial bills are to be reserved for the consideration of the President after they are passed by the Legislature of the State.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 1, 3 and 4
(d) All of the above

55. Option (c) is correct.
Explanation: Consequences of invoking Article 360:
The President can give directions to reduce the salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons serving in connection with the affairs of a state. This could impact the remuneration of government employees and officials.
Reservation of all money bills or other financial bills for the consideration of the President after they are passed by the legislature of the State.
Direction from the President for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons serving the Union; and the judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts.

56. Which of the following factors could potentially contribute to stagflation in the Indian economy?
(1) High inflationary pressures due to increased Government spending
(2) Decline in industrial production and sluggish economic growth
(3) Decrease in aggregate demand and consumer spending
(4) Appreciation of the domestic currency leading to a reduction of export competitiveness
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) Only 2 and 3
(b) Only 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) Only 1 and 2

56. Option (c) is correct.

Explanation: Increased government spending without a corresponding increase in productivity or output can lead to higher demand for goods and services, potentially causing inflationary pressures.
A decline in industrial production and sluggish economic growth can indeed contribute to stagflation.
A decrease in aggregate demand and consumer spending can lead to a situation where businesses reduce production due to reduced demand, potentially contributing to stagflation.
If the domestic currency appreciates, the country’s goods and services become relatively more expensive for foreign buyers, reducing the competitiveness of exports. This can lead to a decrease in export demand, potentially causing economic slowdown and contributing to stagflation.

57. As per the Economic Survey, 2023, which of the following statements describe(s) the trend of Foreign Direct Investment in India?
(1) It has decreased due to the less participation of the private sector.
(2) It has increased compared to the pre-pandemic levels.
(3) It has increased rapidly without decreasing in any Financial Year after the telecom sector was entirely reformed.
(4) It has decreased due to a weak global economic situation.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 2 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Only 4
(d) Only 1 and 3

57. Option (c) is correct.
Explanation: According to the Economic Survey 2023:
It is true to claim that FDI has declined due to less private sector participation.
The statement that FDI has increased compared to pre-pandemic levels is false.
The claim that there has been a steady increase in FDI in the telecom sector since full reforms is not clearly mentioned.
The statement that FDI has declined due to weak global economic conditions is accurate.

58. What is the current population of Gaya district of Bihar?
(a) 3,20,000
(b) 7,80,000
(c) 2,34,000
(d) 5,98,000

58. No option is correct (Bonus)

59. Which of the following statements about non-plan expenditures of the Central Government is correct?
(a) The expenditure is on agriculture.
(b) The expenditure is on science and technology.
(c) The expenditure is on interest payments.
(d) None of the above

59. Option (c) is correct.
Explanation: Non-plan Expenditure refers to spending on activities not included in the current five-year plan of a country. This category encompasses expenses such as defence services, interest payments, administrative costs, and more.

60. Which of the following is not true about globalization and its impact on India?
(a) Increase in exports is greater than increase in imports.
(b) It has led to a greater flow of Foreign Direct Investment.
(c) It has expanded trade in goods and services.
(d) None of the above

60. Option (a) is correct.
Explanation: During the last 25 years, Indian exports have increased by 17 times and imports by 19 times.
India’s share in global merchandise exports has risen from 0.6% in the early 1990s to 1.7% in 2016, and the share of imports has risen from 0.6% to 2.4% during the same period.

61. Consider the following statements about the latest developments in the Union Government finances:
(1) The fiscal deficit of the Union Government had reached 9.2 percent of GDP during the pandemic FY21.
(2) The fiscal deficit has moderated to 7.7 percent of GDP in FY22.
(3) The revenue collection over the last two years has gone down.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) Only 1
(d) None of the above

61. Option (c) is correct.
Explanation: The fiscal deficit, a measure of government borrowing to meet expenditure, rose to 9.2% of GDP during FY 2020-2021, due to pandemic-related spending.

62. The Foreign Exchange Reserves (FER) of RBI include which of the following?
(1) Foreign Currency Assets (FCA)
(2) Gold
(3) Special Drawing Rights (SDR)
(4) Reserve Tranche Position
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) Only 1, 2 and 3
(b) Only 2, 3 and 4
(c) Only 1 and 2
(d) All of the above

62. Option (d) is correct.
Explanation: The foreign exchange reserves of the RBI include various foreign currencies, gold holdings, special drawing rights (SDRs), and reserve positions in the International Monetary Fund (IMF).

63. Consider the following statements about ‘Rules of Origin’:
(1) Rules of Origin are the criteria needed to determine the national source of a product.
(2) Rules of Origin help the custom agencies to know what regulations and fees apply to a given product.
(3) These are used for the purpose of trade statistics.
(4) Their importance is derived from the fact that duties and restrictions in several cases depend upon the sources of imports.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1, 3 and 4
(b) Only 3 and 4
(c) Only 1 and 2
(d) All of the above

63. Option (d) is correct.
Explanation: Rules of origin are regulations and criteria that determine the country of origin of goods in international trade.

64. Consider the following statements about infant mortality rate:
(1) It is the probability of dying between birth and exactly 1 year of age, expressed per 10,000 live births.
(2) The infant mortality rate in the year 1950 was 189.6.
(3) In the year 2019, the infant mortality rate was 30.
(4) As per the Sample Registration System (SRS) Bulletin of Registrar General of India (RGI), the State with the highest infant mortality rate in the year 2019 was Uttar Pradesh.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) Only 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3

64. Option (b) is correct.
Explanation: Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) measures the number of infant deaths per 1,000 live births. In 2019, the infant mortality rate was 30. MP had the highest IMR of 46, followed by UP with 41.

65. Human capital formation as a concept is better explained in terms of a process, which enables:
(1) Individuals of a country to accumulate more capital
(2) Increasing the knowledge
(3) Increasing the skill levels
(4) Increasing the knowledge, skill levels and capacities of the people of the country
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 and 4
(c) Only 4
(d) Only 1

65. Option (c) is correct.
Explanation: Human capital formation refers to the process of acquiring and increasing the number of skilled and educated people in a workforce or population.

66. The Bakasht Movement in Bihar during 1937-1938 was organized by whom?
(a) Jayaprakash Narayan
(b) Swami Sahajanand Saraswati
(c) Peer Ali Khan
(d) Swami Dayanand Saraswati

66. Option (b) is correct.
Explanation: Sahajanand Saraswati organized the Bakasht Movement in Bihar during 1937-1938 to combat the eviction of tenants from Bakasht lands by zamindars.

67. Consider the following events during India’s Freedom Struggle:
(1) Home Rule Movement
(2) Surat Split
(3) Kheda Satyagraha
(4) Minto-Morley Reforms
Which of the following is the correct chronological order of the events given above?
(a) 2-4-1-3
(b) 1-4-2-3
(c) 2-3-1-4
(d) 1-3-2-4

67. Option (a) is correct.
Explanation: The Morley-Minto Reforms were implemented in 1909, while the Surat Split occurred in 1907, and the Kheda Satyagraha took place in 1918.

68. Lord Lytton is not associated with which of the following?
(a) The Arms Act
(b) The Vernacular Press Act
(c) The Ilbert Bill
(d) The Strachey Commission

68. Option (c) is correct.
Explanation: Lord Lytton served as the Viceroy of India from 1876 to 1880. The Ilbert Bill Controversy happened in 1883, after Lytton’s term.

69. Which treaty was signed after the Battle of Buxar?
(a) The Treaty of Sugauli
(b) The Treaty of Bassein
(c) The Treaty of Salbai
(d) The Treaty of Allahabad

69. Option (d) is correct.
Explanation: The Treaty of Allahabad was signed after the Battle of Buxar in 1764.

70. The Dutch East India Company established its factory at Patna in which year?
(a) 1632
(b) 1643
(c) 1648
(d) 1635

70. Option (a) is correct.
Explanation: The Dutch East India Company established their factory at Patna in 1632.

71. In which of the following movements did Mahatma Gandhi make the first use of the hunger strike as a weapon?

(a) Bardoli Satyagraha
(b) Ahmedabad Strike
(c) Rowlatt Satyagraha
(d) Non-Cooperation Movement

71. Option (b) is correct.
Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi first used the principles of Satyagraha and went on a hunger strike during an industrial dispute at the Ahmedabad Mill in 1918.

72. The Quit India Movement in 1942 witnessed significant contributions from leaders of Bihar. Which prominent Bihar leader was known as the ‘Bihar Kesari’ and actively participated in the Quit India Movement?

(a) Shri Krishna Singh
(b) Anugrah Narayan Sinha
(c) Ram Manohar Lohia
(d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

72. Option (a) is correct.
Explanation: Known as the “Bihar Kesari,” Sri Krishna Singh served as the inaugural Chief Minister of Bihar from 1946 to 1961 and actively participated in the Quit India Movement.

73. In response to the mass agitation of the Champaran Movement, the British Government took which step to address the issue?

(a) Enforced strict curfew and imposed Martial Law in the region
(b) Instituted the Champaran Agrarian Committee
(c) Declared Champaran as an independent State
(d) Appointed Mahatma Gandhi as the Governor of Champaran

73. Option (b) is correct.
Explanation: The Lieutenant Governor in Council decided to form a Committee of Inquiry to examine the agrarian situation in Champaran, with Mahatma Gandhi selected as a member.

74. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I                                        List-II
(A) Servants of India Society (1) Debendranath Tagore
(B) Tattwabodhini Sabha (2) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(C) Atmiya Sabha (3) Ram Mohan Roy
(4) Keshab Chandra Sen
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
     A B C
(a) 2 4 3
(b) 1 2 3
(c) 1 4 3
(d) 2 1 3

74. Option (d) is correct.
Explanation: Servants of India Society was founded by Gopal Krishna Gokhale in 1905.

75. Ambabai, a woman freedom fighter, belonged to which of the following States of India?

(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Karnataka
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Kerala

75. Option (b) is correct.
Explanation: Ambabai from Karnataka participated in picketing foreign cloth and liquor shops and was imprisoned for her activities during the independence movement.