BPSC Previous Year Question Papers

BPSC Previous Year Question Papers

26 Assertion (A): Rich placer deposits of gold are found on the Ghana coast and gold-bearing veins are found in Brazil.
Reason (R): At some points of time, these continents were joined together along the Atlantic coast.
Select the correct answer.
(a) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) A is false but R is true
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Option (d) is correct.
Explanation: Extensive placer deposits of gold are found along the coast of Ghana. Interestingly, there are no source rocks for gold in this region. The gold-bearing veins are actually located in Brazil. It’s evident that the gold deposits in Ghana originated from the Brazilian plateau during a time when the two continents were adjacent to each other.

27 Bihar’s geographical structure consists of rock systems. Match the rock systems with their descriptions:
(A) Dharwar rock system 1. Created by the rapid deposition of alluvium by Himalayan and Peninsular rivers
(B) Vindhyan rock system 2. Can be found in the West Champaran district
(C) Quaternary rock system 3. Part of the oldest Archaean rock system
(D) Tertiary rock system 4. Sandstone, limestone, dolomite, quartzite and shale are the main constituents of this rock system
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
A B C D
(a) 1 3 2 4
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 4 2 3 1
(d) 3 4 1 2

ans. d

28 Which one of the following is the world’s richest region from a marine biodiversity perspective, comprising twenty-one islands with estuaries, beaches, forests of the nearshore environment, sea grasses, coral reefs, salt marshes and mangroves?
(a) Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve
(b) Sunderbans Biosphere Reserve
(c) Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve
(d) Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve

ans.d
Explanation: The Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve, situated on the southeastern coast of India opposite Sri Lanka, encompasses an expansive area of 1,050,000 hectares. This region stands out as one of the world’s most ecologically diverse areas, particularly in terms of marine biodiversity. Within the biosphere reserve, you can find a complex ecosystem comprising 21 islands, along with estuaries, beaches, near shore forests, and a marine component featuring algal communities, sea grasses, coral reefs, salt marshes, and mangroves.

29 What is the local time of Thimphu (Bhutan) located at 90° East longitude when the time at Greenwich (0°) is 12:00 noon?
(a) 4:00 p.m.
(b) 7:00 p.m.
(c) 6:00 a.m.
(d) 6:00 p.m.

ans. d
To calculate the time in Thimphu, Bhutan, at 12:00 noon Greenwich Mean Time (GMT) when considering a specific longitude, such as 90 degrees east, you can use the following steps: 1. Determine the time difference for each degree of longitude: Earth rotates 360 degrees in approximately 24 hours, so each degree of longitude corresponds to a time difference of 24 hours divided by 360 degrees, which is 4 minutes. 2. Calculate the time difference between the prime meridian (0 degrees longitude, which is Greenwich) and the longitude of interest (in this case, 90 degrees east). 3. Multiply the time difference per degree (4 minutes) by the number of degrees east of Greenwich (90 degrees). Here’s the calculation: Time difference = 4 minutes/degree × 90 degrees = 360 minutes Now, convert the minutes to hours: 360 minutes ÷ 60 minutes/hour = 6 hours So, when it is 12:00 noon at Greenwich Mean Time (GMT), it would be 6:00 PM (18:00) at a location along the 90-degree east longitude, which includes parts of Bhutan, includig Thimphu.

30 Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Mica is found in Kodarma.
(b) Cuddapah series is famous for diamonds.
(c) Petroleum reserves are found in Aravalli hills.
(d) Natural gas is found in Dharwar rock formation.

ans. a
Explanation: Mica is primarily found in the northern region of the Chota Nagpur Plateau. The central production area for mica is concentrated within the Koderma-GayaHazaribagh belt, which is located in the state of Jharkhand, India. This region is known for its significant mica deposits and plays a crucial role in mica production in the country.

31 How many latitudes are there on the globe drawn at 1 degree interval?
(a) 179
(b) 178
(c) 180
(d) None of the above

ans. a
Explanation: The equator holds a value of 0 degrees, while the latitudes at the North Pole and South Pole are designated as 90 degrees North (90°N) and 90 degrees South (90°S) respectively. „ If parallels of latitude are drawn at one-degree intervals, there will be a total of 89 parallels in both the northern and southern hemispheres, resulting in a grand total of 179 parallels (including the equator).

32 The average height of the Kosi plain from mean sea level is:
(a) 30 m
(b) 150 m
(c) 300 m
(d) None of the above

ans. a
Explanation: The Kosi Plain, also known as the Kosi Basin, is located in the northern part of the Indian subcontinent, primarily in the state of Bihar, India, and extends into Nepal. „ The elevation of the Kosi Plain can range from approximately 30 meters to 45 meters above sea level. It is not a uniform plain, and its elevation can vary depending on the specific location within the region.

33 On which plateau, the Tropic of Cancer and the Indian Standard Time Line intersect each other?
(a) Malwa
(b) Baghelkhand
(c) Bundelkhand
(d) None of the above

ans. b
Explanation: Baghelkhand plateau lies at the border of MP and Chattisgarh. This is where the tropic of cancer and Indian Standard time line intersect.

34 Which district of Uttarakhand is not situated along the Tibbet boundary?
(a) Almora
(b) Chamoli
(c) Uttarkashi
(d) None of the above

ans. a
Explanation: Almora District of Uttarakhand doesn’t have a border with Tibet.

35 Where does the El Niño current flow?
(a) The Bay of Bengal
(b) The Indian Ocean
(c) The Pacific Ocean
(d) More than one of the above

ans. c
Explanation: The El Niño current, also known as the El Niño-Southern Oscillation (ENSO), involves changes in sea surface temperatures and atmospheric conditions primarily in the tropical Pacific Ocean. Specifically, it is associated with the central and eastern equatorial Pacific Ocean. During an El Niño event, warm surface waters from the western Pacific flow eastward toward the central and eastern Pacific, disrupting normal ocean and atmospheric patterns and leading to various climate impacts worldwide.

36 Consider the following statements:
(1) Lake Victoria is the third largest freshwater lake in the world by surface area.
(2) It is one of the great lakes of Africa.
(3) It is bordered by four countries-Tanzania, Uganda, Rwanda and Kenya.
(4) The only outflow from Lake Victoria is the Nile River, which exits the lake near Jinja, Uganda.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?
(a) 2 and 4
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1 and 2

ans. c
Explanation: Lake Victoria is the second-largest freshwater lake in the world by area. „
The African great lakes consist of seven lakes that span countries in East, South and Central Africa. These lakes are lake Victoria, Tanganyika, Malawi, Turkana, Albert, Kivu and Edward in order of size. „
Kenya, Tanzania and Uganda share Lake Victoria. „
The White Nile River is the only outlet from the lake.

37 Consider the following statements regarding ‘heat wave’:
(1) Heat wave is considered if the maximum temperature of a station reaches at least 30 °C or more for plains.
(2) Heat wave is considered if the maximum temperature of a station reaches at least 40°C or more for hilly regions.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Both 1 and 2

ans. c
Explanation: In the plains and other similar low-altitude areas, a heat wave is typically considered when the temperature exceeds 40°C for a sustained period. This indicates extremely hot weather and poses health risks to the population. In hilly or higher-altitude regions, due to the generally milder climate, a heat wave is considered when the temperature exceeds 30°C (86°F) for a sustained period.

38 Match List-I with List-II :
List-I (Explorer) List-II (Birthplace)
(A) Christopher Columbus 1. Portugal
(B) Jacques Cartier 2. United Kingdom
(C) Sir Francis Drake 3. Italy
(D) Ferdinand Magellan 4. France
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
A B C D
(a) 1 2 4 3
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 1 4 2 3
(d) 3 4 2 1

ans. d
Explanation: Columbus was born in the Italian seaport of Genoa in 1451. „ Jacques Cartier was a French-Breton maritime explorer for France. Jacques Cartier was the first European to describe and map the Gulf of Saint Lawrence and the shores of the Saint Lawrence River „ Sir Francis Drake was an English explorer and privateer best known for his circumnavigation of the world in a single expedition between 1577 and 1580. „ Ferdinand Magellan was a Portuguese explorer best known for having planned and led the 1519 Spanish expedition to the East Indies across the Pacific Ocean to open a maritime trade route

39 The emirates of UAE are:
(a) Dubai, Sharjah, Ajman, Jeddah, Kuwait, Bahrain, Umm Al-Quwain
(b) Umm Al-Quwain, Fujairah, Ras Al-Khaimah, Riyadh, Dammam, Taif, Dubai
(c) Sharjah, Abu Dhabi, Ajman, Fujairah, Dubai, Bahrain Kuwait
(d) Abu Dhabi, Dubai, Sharjah, Ajman, Umm Al-Quwain, Fujairah, Ras Al-Khaimah

ans. d
Explanation: The United Arab Emirates (UAE) is a federation of seven emirates, each governed by its own ruler or emir. This includes Abu Dhabi, Dubai, Sharjah, Ajman, Umm Al-Quwain, Ras Al Khaimah and Fujairah.

40 The river Subarnarekha originates near which of the following villages?
(a) Mandar
(b) Hehal
(c) Nagri
(d) Ormanjhi

ans. c
Explanation: The Subarnarekha River is among the longest rivers that flow eastward through multiple states. It begins its journey near Nagri village within the Ranchi district of Jharkhand, originating at an elevation of 600 meters above sea level. This river spans a total length of approximately 395 kilometers. Some of its major tributaries include the Kanchi, Kharkai, and Karkari rivers.

41 The specifications required for a community to be declared as a Scheduled Tribe are:
(1) Indications of primitive traits
(2) Distinctive culture
(3) Shyness of contact with the community at large
(4) Backwardness and geographical isolation
Which of the above are correct?
(a) Only 1, 3 and 4
(b) Only 2, 3 and 4
(c) Only 1 and 2
(d) All of the above

ans. d
Explanation: The criteria presently followed for specification of a community as a Scheduled Tribe are : (i) indications of primitive traits, (ii) distinctive culture, (iii) geographical isolation, (iv) shyness of contact with the community at large, and (v) backwardness. However, these criteria are not spelt out in the Constitution.

42 From which country, the Indian Constitution has taken reference for the idea of the Fundamental Rights?
(a) United States of America
(b) United Kingdom
(c) Canada
(d) Ireland

ans. a
Explanation: India’s Fundamental Rights framework has been influenced by the U.S. Constitution. These Fundamental Rights are essential rights granted to individuals to ensure their dignity and integrity, as outlined in Part III of the Indian Constitution.

43 Untouchability is abolished by which Article of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Article 15
(b) Article 17
(c) Article 22
(d) Article 14

ans. b
Explanation: Article 17 of the Indian Constitution is a significant provision that provides for the abolition of “untouchability”.

44 The authority to determine the number of Judges in a High Court rests with which of the following entities?
(a) The Chief Minister of the State
(b) The Prime Minister
(c) The Parliament
(d) The President

ans. d
Explanation: As per Article 216 of the Constitution the High Courts shall consist of a Chief Justice and such other Judges as the President may from time to time deem it necessary to appoint.

45 The Fifth Schedule deals with the governance and protection of the interests of which specific group of people?
(a) Religious Minorities
(b) Scheduled Tribes
(c) Linguistic Minorities
(d) Scheduled Castes

ans. b
Explanation: The Fifth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the administration and governance of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes (STs). It provides special provisions and safeguards for the protection of the rights and interests of indigenous tribal communities residing in certain specified areas of India.

46 In which case(s) did the Supreme Court of India give for the first time the doctrine of ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution?
(a) Golaknath vs. State of Punjab
(b) Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala
(c) Minerva Mills vs. Union of India
(d) Both (a) and (b)

ans. b
Explanation: The concept of the “basic structure” of the Indian Constitution, which implies certain fundamental principles and features of the Constitution that cannot be altered or amended by the Parliament through ordinary legislative processes, was first articulated by the Indian Supreme Court in the landmark case of Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala in 1973. This case is significant because it established the principle that while the Indian Parliament has the power to amend the Constitution, it cannot alter its basic structure or its fundamental features, which include democracy, secularism, federalism, and the separation of powers, among others.

47 Match the following political parties listed in List-I with their years of establishment in List-II:
List-I (Political Parties) List-II (Years of Establishment)
(A) Communist Party of India (Marxist) 1. 1964
(B) Communist Party of India 2. 1998
(C) Bahujan Samaj Party 3. 1925
(D) All India Trinamool Congress (AITC) 4. 1984

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 1 3 4 2

ans. d
Explanation: Communist Party of India (Marxist) – 1964. It was founded by P. Sundarayya and E. M. S. Namboodiripad. „ Communist Party of India – 1925. It was founded by S. A. Dange, Shripad Amrit Dange, M. N. Roy, and others. „ Bahujan Samaj Party – 1984. It was founded by Kanshi Ram. „ All India Trinamool Congress (AITC) – 1998. It was founded by Mamata Banerjee.

48 Under which Article(s), the Speaker can allow any member of the House to speak in his/her mother tongue?
(a) Article 110 (1)
(b) Article 122 (2)
(c) Article 120 (1)
(d) Both (a) and (b)

ans. c
Explanation: Article 120 (1) Notwithstanding anything in Part XVII, but subject to the provisions of article 348, business in Parliament shall be transacted in Hindi or in English: „ Provided that the Chairman of the Council of States or Speaker of the House of the People, or person acting as such, as the case may be, may permit any member who cannot adequately express himself in Hindi or in English to address the House in his mother-tongue.

49 Consider the following statements about the collegium system:
(1) The Supreme Court collegium is a five-member body, which is headed by the incumbent Chief Justice of India (CJI) and comprises four other senior most Judges of the Court at that time.
(2) The Parliament by law has evolved the collegium system.
(3) The Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts are appointed only through the collegium system.
(4) The collegium system was introduced in the year 1993 by Justice P. N. Bhagwati in the landmark First Judges Case.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) Only 1

ans. c
Explanation: The Supreme Court, in response to the President’s reference under Article 143 of the Indian Constitution, broadened the composition of the Collegium to include five members. This new structure consisted of the Chief Justice of India (CJI) along with four of the most senior judges. „ The system for appointing and transferring judges has developed through rulings of the Supreme Court (SC) and has not been established by an Act of Parliament or through a constitutional provision. „ In 1993, a majority decision of a Nine-Judge Constitutional Bench in the Second Judges’ Case, and in 1998, a unanimous decision of another NineJudge Constitutional Bench in the Third Judges’ Case, successfully implemented the concept of the collegium of judges without the need for a constitutional amendment.

50 Consider the following statements regarding the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution of India:
(1) It added three words to the Preamble-’Socialist’, ‘Secular’ and ‘Integrity’.
(2) It added eight Fundamental Duties to the Constitution.
(3) It added new Directive Principles, i.e., Article 39A, Article 43A and Article 47.
(4) It granted power to the President, in consultation with the Election Commission, to disqualify members of the State Legislatures.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?
(a) 3 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 1 and 2

ans.b
Explanation: The 42nd Amendment added the words “socialist”, “secular”, and “integrity” to the Preamble, emphasising India’s commitment to these principles. „ It added 10 fundamental duties to the constitution and not 8. „ The 42nd amendment did not add Article 47.